Kane doesn't turn up for training

Silly man, he can only leave if a team wishes to buy him. He isn't being forced to stay against his wishes, as far as I am aware.

He wants to leave, they're refusing to sell, so he is being forced to stay against his will.

Man City bid £100m for him last month, it was rejected.

But I'm not a fan of players forcing moves with stunts like this, it's his own fault for signing such a long contract.
 
If he thought Levy was going to stick to any "gentleman's agreement" he's dafter than he looks.

Appreciate he wants to go to a club with a better (almost guaranteed) chance of winning trophies, but agree with Teacider, shouldn't have signed such a long contract. Or at least negotiated a release clause or something.

Badly advised maybe? Or just naive?
 
Spurs should respect Kane wishes. Do not mess him about. Just accept that bid then use that money to sign few players that Spurs really need.
 
If he thought Levy was going to stick to any "gentleman's agreement" he's dafter than he looks.

Appreciate he wants to go to a club with a better (almost guaranteed) chance of winning trophies, but agree with Teacider, shouldn't have signed such a long contract. Or at least negotiated a release clause or something.

Badly advised maybe? Or just naive?
It's not the behaviour you would expect from the England captain.
 
He’ll get his move, even if it’s in the last hour of the window. Spurs will want cover before they allow him to go.
 
Even if he goes to City, there's absolutely no chance Levy will sanction that deal before the first game of the season.
 
Kane should respect he contract he willingly signed and not mess his employers about.

depends on what was agreed with Levy for leaving, a verbal agreement can still be legally binding, you could equally argue it’s his employer messing him around by reneging on their agreement.

I’m not convinced it’s being reported accurately anyway.
 
depends on what was agreed with Levy for leaving, a verbal agreement can still be legally binding, you could equally argue it’s his employer messing him around by reneging on their agreement.

I’m not convinced it’s being reported accurately anyway.
If there is a verbal agreement - how does anyone prove such an agreement exists if there's no witness to it???

And yes I think you are right with that not being reported accurately.
 
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